IAS 36 - Printable Version +- Accountancy Forum (https://www.accountancy.com.pk/forum) +-- Forum: The Profession (https://www.accountancy.com.pk/forum/forum-the-profession) +--- Forum: Accounting and Audit (https://www.accountancy.com.pk/forum/forum-accounting-and-audit) +--- Thread: IAS 36 (/thread-ias-36--4722) |
IAS 36 - israrhere - 08-28-2007 Please explain rules for allocating impairment loss for CGU as given in para 104 and 105 of IAS 36 with an example. thanks - Muhammad Amir - 08-29-2007 First set off Impairment loss of Cash Generating unit to the Goodwill of that unit then apportion these losses pro rata on other assets in CGU... <b>Lets See this Example</b> <b>GoodWill-------------600 Prpperty--------------2000 Equipment-----------1500 Fixtures---------------500 _____________________ Total-------------------4600 Recoverable Amount of CGU----(3500) ______________________ Impairment Loss----1100</b> Now First Write Off the GoodWill fully of this CGU then apportion remaining losses prorata to other assets of CGU. Apportionment at 2000+1500+500=> 4000 Losses to be apportioned 1100-600(of Goodwil)500(Remaining loss to be apportioned on other assets) GoodWill-------------600-600====0 Prpperty--------------2000-250===1750 Equipment-----------1500-187.5==1312.5 Fixtures---------------500-62.5===437.5 __________________________________ Total------------------4600-1100==3500 Recoverable Amount of CGU---(3500) ______________________ Impairment Loss----1100 Remember that book value must not exceed the apportion able amount of particular asset <b>See another Illustration below A CGUâs Book value is 7500 its Recoverable amount is 6000 then Impairment loss would be 1500.. Example # 1 GoodWill-------------500 Prpperty--------------4000 Machine-------------2000 Fixtures---------------1000 _____________________ Total-------------------7500 Recoverable Amount of CGU----(6000) ______________________ Impairment Loss----1500 a)Here Machine can be sold individually for 2100 b)Here Machine can be sold individually for 1900 c)Here Machine can be sold individually for 1500</b> <b><u>SOLUTION OF (a)</u></b> a)Here Machine can be sold individually for 2100 First Write Off the Good will then apportion remaining(1500-500=1000) loss prorata to remaining assets, but machine which has a book value of 2000 can be sold for 2100 this implies that machine is an asset than can be realized fully and hence the loss should not be apportioned to it so we will apportion loss as Property 4000 Fixtures 1000 ____________ ======5000 So, 4000/5000*1000=> 800 And 1000/5000*1000=>200 GoodWill-------------500-500===0 Prpperty--------------4000-800===3200 Machine--------------2000-0====2000(because it can be fully realized) Fixtures---------------1000-200==800 _________________________________________________ Total-------------------7500-1500==6000 Recoverable Amount of CGU----(6000) ______________________ Impairment Loss----1500 <u><b>SOLUTION OF (b)</b></u> b)Here Machine can be sold individually for 1900 First Write Off the Good will then apportion remaining(1500-500=1000) loss prorata to remaining assets, but machine which has a book value of 2000 can be sold for 1900 this implies that machine is an asset than can only absorb (2000-1900)100 amount of loss that is we can only set of 100 loss against Machine⦠Now losses are set off(1500-500-100=>900) this remaining loss of 900 can be set off against Machine and Fixtures Property 4000 Fixtures 1000 ____________ ======5000 So, 4000/5000*900=> 720 And 1000/5000*900=>180 GoodWill-------------500-500====0 Property--------------4000-720===3280 Machine--------------2000-100===1900(because it can be realized upto 1900 only) Fixtures---------------1000-180===820 _________________________________________________ Total-------------------7500-1500==6000 Recoverable Amount of CGU----(6000) ______________________ Impairment Loss----1500 <u><b>SOLUTION OF (c)</b></u> a)Here Machine can be sold individually for 1500 First Write Off the Good will then apportion remaining(1500-500=1000) loss prorata to remaining assets, but machine which has a book value of 2000 can be sold for 1500 this implies that machine can absorb the loss of 500(2000-1500) Maximum⦠Property 4000 Machine 2000 Fixtures 1000 ____________ ====== 7000 So, 4000/7000*1000=> 571 And 2000/7000*1000=> 286(Hence this 286 is less than 500 we will write off fully) And 1000/7000*1000=>143 GoodWill-------------500-500===0 Prpperty--------------4000-571===3429 Machine--------------2000-286====1714(because it can be fully realized) Fixtures---------------1000-143==857 _________________________________________________ Total-------------------7500-1500==6000 Recoverable Amount of CGU----(6000) ______________________ Impairment Loss----1500 Remember That <b>Recoverable Amount</b> is <b>Higher of Fair Value Less Cost to Sell OR Value In Use (this can be computed by present values of future benefits droved to company by a CGU)</b> - israrhere - 08-30-2007 Amir Bhi thanks a lot for your helpfull examples - kamranACA - 08-30-2007 Keep it up Amir ! Regards, - Muhammad Amir - 08-30-2007 Thanks Dear Kamran Sahib and You are most welcome dear Israr |