03-01-2005, 11:29 PM
LET X = Y
NOW multiplying both sides with x we have
x2 = xy
subtracting y2 from both sides
x2-y2 = xy - y2
(x+y)(x-y) = y(x-y)
x+y = y
now as we know that y=x so putting y=x in above equation
x+x = x
2x = x
2x/x = x/x
2 = 1
so i have proved that two is equal to one.how is that possible?
bilal
NOW multiplying both sides with x we have
x2 = xy
subtracting y2 from both sides
x2-y2 = xy - y2
(x+y)(x-y) = y(x-y)
x+y = y
now as we know that y=x so putting y=x in above equation
x+x = x
2x = x
2x/x = x/x
2 = 1
so i have proved that two is equal to one.how is that possible?
bilal